[May-2024] Pass CRISC Exam in First Attempt Updated CRISC Exam Questions
Isaca Certificaton Dumps CRISC Exam for Full Questions - Exam Study Guide
To qualify for the CRISC certification exam, candidates must have at least three years of experience in the field of information systems control and risk management, with a minimum of one year of experience in each of the four domains. CRISC exam consists of 150 multiple-choice questions and is offered in English, Spanish, Chinese, and other languages. CRISC exam is administered by ISACA, a global nonprofit organization that helps professionals in the field of information systems audit, security, risk management, and governance.
To prepare for the CRISC exam, candidates can take advantage of ISACA's training and certification resources, which include study materials, online courses, and exam preparation workshops. CRISC exam is challenging, and candidates should plan to study for several months before taking the exam. However, with dedication and hard work, candidates can pass the CRISC exam and achieve a highly respected certification in the field of IT risk management and control.
CRISC Exam topics
Candidates must know the exam topics before they start of preparation. Because it will really help them in hitting the core. Our CRISC exam dumps will include the following topics:
- IS Control Monitoring and Maintenance: 18%
- Information Systems Control Design and Implementation: 17%
- Risk Monitoring: 17%
- Risk Identification, Assessment, and Evolution: 31%
- Risk Response: 17%
NEW QUESTION # 434
Which of the following come under the management class of controls?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. Identification and authentication control
- B. Audit and accountability control
- C. Risk assessment control
- D. Program management control
- E. Explanation:
The Management class of controls includes five families. These families include over 40 individual controls. Following is a list of each of the families in the Management class: Certification, Accreditation, and Security Assessment (CA): This family of controls addresses steps to implement a security and assessment program. It includes controls to ensure only authorized systems are allowed on a network. It includes details on important security concepts, such as continuous monitoring and a plan of action and milestones. Planning (PL): The PL family focuses on security plans for systems. It also covers Rules of Behaviour for users. Rules of Behaviour are also called an acceptable use policy. Risk Assessment (RA): This family of controls provides details on risk assessments and vulnerability scanning. System and Services Acquisition (SA): The SA family includes any controls related to the purchase of products and services. It also includes controls related to software usage and user installed software. Program Management (PM): This family is driven by the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA). It provides controls to ensure compliance with FISMA. These controls complement other controls. They don't replace them.
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
and B are incorrect. Identification and authentication, and audit and accountability control are technical class of controls.
NEW QUESTION # 435
Which of the following should be PRIMARILY considered while designing information systems controls?
- A. The organizational strategic plan
- B. The IT strategic plan
- C. The present IT budget
- D. is incorrect. The present IT budget is just one of the components of the strategic plan.
- E. The existing IT environment
- F. Explanation:
Review of the enterprise's strategic plan is the first step in designing effective IS controls that
would fit the enterprise's long-term plans. - G. is incorrect. Review of the existing IT environment is also useful and necessary but is
not the first step that needs to be undertaken.
Answer: A
Explanation:
is incorrect. The IT strategic plan exists to support the enterprise's strategic plan but is
not solely considered while designing information system control.
NEW QUESTION # 436
Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months.
Management asks Billy how often the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project.
What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management?
- A. Project risk management happens at every milestone.
- B. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project.
- C. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.
- D. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk management is an ongoing project activity. It should be an agenda item at every project status meeting.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Risk management happens throughout the project as does project planning.
B: Milestones are good times to do reviews, but risk management should happen frequently.
C: This answer would only be correct if the project has a status meeting just once per month in the project.
NEW QUESTION # 437
Which of the following is MOST helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives?
- A. Implementing a risk classification system
- B. Performing a business impact analysis (BIA)
- C. Integrating the results of top-down risk scenario analyses
- D. Introducing an approved IT governance framework
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 438
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
- A. Number of users that participated in the DRP testing
- B. Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing
- C. Percentage of issues related as a result of DRP testing
- D. Number of issues identified during DRP testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 439
You are the project manager of HGT project. You are in the first phase of the risk response process and are doing following tasks :
Communicating risk analysis results
Reporting risk management activities and the state of compliance
Interpreting independent risk assessment findings
Identifying business opportunities
Which of the following process are you performing?
- A. Articulating risk
- B. Reporting risk
- C. Tracking risk
- D. Mitigating risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
Articulating risk is the first phase in the risk response process to ensure that information on the true state of exposures and opportunities are made available in a timely manner and to the right people for appropriate response. Following are the tasks that are involved in articulating risk:
* Communicate risk analysis results.
* Report risk management activities and the state of compliance.
* Interpret independent risk assessment findings.
* Identify business opportunities.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Risk mitigation attempts to reduce the probability of a risk event and its impacts to an acceptable level. Risk mitigation can utilize various forms of control carefully integrated together. This comes under risk response process and is latter stage after articulating risk.
C: Tracking risk is the process of tracking the ongoing status of risk mitigation processes. This tracking ensures that the risk response strategy remains active and that proposed controls are implemented according to schedule.
D: This is not related to risk response process. It is a type of risk. Reporting risks are the risks that are caused due to wrong reporting which leads to bad decision.
NEW QUESTION # 440
You are the project manager in your enterprise. You have identified occurrence of risk event in your enterprise. You have pre-planned risk responses. You have monitored the risks that had occurred. What is the immediate step after this monitoring process that has to be followed in response to risk events?
- A. Eliminate the risk completely
- B. Initiate incident response
- C. Communicate lessons learned from risk events
- D. Update the risk register
Answer: B
Explanation:
When the risk events occur then following tasks have to done to react to it: Maintain incident response plans Monitor risk Initiate incident response Communicate lessons learned from risk events
NEW QUESTION # 441
Legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by:
- A. international law and a uniform set of regulations.
- B. the laws and regulations of each individual country
- C. the jurisdiction in which an organization has its principal headquarters
- D. international standard-setting bodies.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 442
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event on your project that could save
$100,000 in project costs if it occurs. Which of the following statements BEST describes this risk event?
- A. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.
- B. This risk event should be avoided to take full advantage of the potential savings.
- C. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
- D. This is a risk event that should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the project.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs, so it is an opportunity, and the appropriate strategy to use in this case is the exploit strategy. The exploit response is one of the strategies to negate risks or threats appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for positive impact on a project. Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion is an example of exploit response.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: Mitigation and avoidance risk response is used in case of negative risk events, and not in positive risk events. Here in this scenario, as it is stated that the event could save $100,000, hence it is a positive risk event. Therefore should not be mitigated or avoided.
B: To accept risk means that no action is taken relative to a particular risk; loss is accepted if it occurs. But as this risk event bring an opportunity, it should me exploited and not accepted.
NEW QUESTION # 443
An organization has completed a project to implement encryption on all databases that host customer dat a. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated the reflect this change?
- A. Risk tolerance
- B. Risk likelihood
- C. Inherent risk
- D. Risk appetite
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 444
You are the project manager of GHT project. You have identified a risk event on your current project that could save $670,000 in project costs if it occurs. Your organization is considering hiring a vendor to help establish proper project management techniques in order to assure it realizes these savings. Which of the following statements is TRUE for this risk event?
- A. This risk event should be accepted because the rewards outweigh the threat to the project.
- B. This risk event should be mitigated to take advantage of the savings.
- C. This is a risk event that should be shared to take full advantage of the potential savings.
- D. This risk event is an opportunity to the project and should be exploited.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This risk event has the potential to save money on project costs and organization is hiring a vendor to assure that all these saving are being realized. Hence this risk event involves sharing with a third party to help assure that the opportunity take place.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This risk event is not accepted as this event has potential to save money as well as it is shared with a vendor so that all these savings are being realized.
B: The risk event is mitigated when it has negative impacts. But here it is positive consequences (i.e., saving), therefore it is not mitigated.
C: This risk event can be exploited but as here in this scenario, it is stated that organization is hiring vendor, therefore event is being shared not exploited.
NEW QUESTION # 445
Which of the following are the common mistakes while implementing KRIs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
- A. Choosing KRIs that are not linked to specific risk
- B. Choosing KRIs that are difficult to measure
- C. Choosing KRIs that has high correlation with the risk
- D. Choosing KRIs that are incomplete or inaccurate due to unclear specifications
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A common mistake when implementing KRIs other than selecting too many KRIs includes choosing KRIs that are:
Not linked to specific risk
Incomplete or inaccurate due to unclear specifications
Too generic
Difficult to aggregate, compare and interpret
Difficult to measure
Incorrect Answers:
B: For ensuring high reliability of the KRI, The indicator must possess a high correlation with the risk and be a good predictor or outcome measure. Hence KRIs are chosen that has high correlation with the risk.
NEW QUESTION # 446
An organization is planning to acquire a new financial system. Which of the following stakeholders would provide the MOST relevant information for analyzing the risk associated with the new IT solution?
- A. Risk manager
- B. Project sponsor
- C. Internal auditor
- D. Process owner
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 447
Ben is the project manager of the CMH Project for his organization. He has identified a risk that has a low probability of happening, but the impact of the risk event could save the project and the organization with a significant amount of capital. Ben assigns Laura to the risk event and instructs her to research the time, cost, and method to improve the probability of the positive risk event. Ben then communicates the risk event and response to management. What risk response has been used here?
- A. Enhance
- B. Sharing
- C. Exploit
- D. Transference
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Enhance is a risk response to improve the conditions to ensure the risk event occurs. Risk enhancement raises the probability of an opportunity to take place by focusing on the trigger conditions of the opportunity and optimizing the chances. Identifying and maximizing input drivers of these positive-impact risks may raise the probability of their occurrence.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Transference is a strategy to mitigate negative risks or threats. In this strategy, consequences and the ownership of a risk is transferred to a third party. This strategy does not eliminate the risk but transfers responsibility of managing the risk to another party. Insurance is an example of transference.
C: Exploit response is one of the strategies to negate risks or threats that appear in a project. This strategy may be selected for risks with positive impacts where the organization wishes to ensure that the opportunity is realized. Exploiting a risk event provides opportunities for positive impact on a project.
Assigning more talented resources to the project to reduce the time to completion is an example of exploit response.
D: Sharing happens through partnerships, joint ventures, and teaming agreements. Sharing response is where two or more entities share a positive risk. Teaming agreements are good example of sharing the reward that comes from the risk of the opportunity.
NEW QUESTION # 448
An organization is planning to engage a cloud-based service provider for some of its data-intensive business processes. Which of the following is MOST important to help define the IT risk associated with this outsourcing activity?
- A. Right to audit the provider
- B. Customer service reviews
- C. Service level agreement
- D. Scope of services provided
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 449
A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?
- A. Business continuity manager (BCM)
- B. Chief information officer (CIO)
- C. Human resources manager (HRM)
- D. Chief risk officer (CRO)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 450
You are the project manager of the GHT project. This project will last for 18 months and has a project budget of $567,000. Robert, one of your stakeholders, has introduced a scope change request that will likely have an impact on the project costs and schedule. Robert assures you that he will pay for the extra time and costs associated with the risk event. You have identified that change request may also affect other areas of the project other than just time and cost. What project management component is responsible for evaluating a change request and its impact on all of the project management knowledge areas?
- A. Configuration management
- B. Risk analysis
- C. Integrated change control
- D. Project change control system
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
Integrated change control is responsible for evaluating a proposed change and determining its impact on all areas of the project: scope, time, cost, quality, human resources, communication, risk, and procurement.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Configuration management defines the management, control, and documentation of the features and functions of the project's product.
C: Risk analysis is not responsible for reviewing the change aspects for the entire project.
D: The project change control system defines the workflow and approval process for proposed changes to the project scope, time, cost, and contracts.
NEW QUESTION # 451
What type of policy would an organization use to forbid its employees from using organizational e-mail for personal use?
- A. Acceptable use policy
- B. Privacy policy
- C. Anti-harassment policy
- D. Intellectual property policy
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An acceptable use policy is a set of rules applied by the owner/manager of a network, website or large computer system that restrict the ways in which the network site or system may be used. Acceptable Use Policies are an integral part of the framework of information security policies.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C: These two policies are not related to Information system security.
D: Privacy policy is a statement or a legal document (privacy law) that discloses some or all of the ways a party gathers, uses, discloses and manages a customer or client's data.
NEW QUESTION # 452
Who should be responsible (of evaluating the residual risk after a compensating control has been
- A. Compliance manager
- B. Control owner
- C. Risk practitioner
- D. Risk owner
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 453
A risk practitioner has been asked by executives to explain how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Which of the following is MOST helpful in responding to this request?
- A. Showing projected residual risk
- B. Assessing risk with no controls in place
- C. Assessing risk with current controls in place
- D. Providing peer benchmarking results
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 454
You are the project manager of the HGT project in Bluewell Inc. The project has an asset valued at $125,000 and is subjected to an exposure factor of 25 percent. What will be the Single Loss Expectancy of this project?
- A. $ 3,125,000
- B. $ 125,025
- C. $ 5,000
- D. $ 31,250
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
The Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) of this project will be $31,250.
Single Loss Expectancy is a term related to Quantitative Risk Assessment. It can be defined as the monetary value expected from the occurrence of a risk on an asset. It is mathematically expressed as follows:
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF)
where the Exposure Factor represents the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost. As an example, if the Asset Value is reduced two third, the exposure factor value is .66. If the asset is completely lost, the Exposure Factor is 1.0. The result is a monetary value in the same unit as the Single Loss Expectancy is expressed.
Therefore,
SLE = Asset Value * Exposure Factor
= 125,000 * 0.25
= $31,250
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: These are not SLEs of this project.
NEW QUESTION # 455
Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?
- A. Risk tolerance
- B. Expected frequency and potential impact
- C. Risk appetite
- D. Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 456
A failed IT system upgrade project has resulted in the corruption of an organization's asset inventory database.
Which of the following controls BEST mitigates the impact of this incident?
- A. Authentication
- B. Configuration
- C. Encryption
- D. Backups
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 457
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure that outsourced service providers comply with the enterprise's information security policy?
- A. Service level monitoring
- B. Periodic audits
- C. Penetration testing
- D. Security awareness training
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
As regular audits can spot gaps in information security compliance, periodic audits can ensure that outsourced service provider comply with the enterprise's information security policy.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Penetration testing can identify security vulnerability, but cannot ensure information compliance.
B: Service level monitoring can only identify operational issues in the enterprise's operational environment. It does not play any role in ensuring that outsourced service provider complies with the enterprise's information security policy.
C: Training can increase user awareness of the information security policy, but is less effective than periodic auditing.
NEW QUESTION # 458
Which of the following role carriers has to account for collecting data on risk and articulating risk?
- A. Chief risk officer (CRO)
- B. Chief information officer (CIO)
- C. Enterprise risk committee
- D. Business process owner
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CRO is the individual who oversees all aspects of risk management across the enterprise. Chief risk officer has the main accountability for collecting data and articulating risk. If there is any fault in these processes then CRO should be answerable.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Enterprise risk committee are the executives who are accountable for the enterprise level collaboration and consensus required to support enterprise risk management (ERM). They are to some extent responsible for articulating risk but are not accounted for it. They are neither responsible nor accounted for collecting data on risk.
B: Business process owner is an individual responsible for identifying process requirements, approving process design and managing process performance. He/she is responsible for collecting data and articulating risk but is not accounted for them.
C: CIO is the most senior official of the enterprise who is accountable for IT advocacy; aligning IT and business strategies; and planning, resourcing and managing the delivery of IT services and information and the deployment of associated human resources. CIO has some responsibility towards collecting data and articulating risk but is not accounted for them.
NEW QUESTION # 459
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