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NEW QUESTION # 37
A security engineer is implementing a Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) system.
What is the BEST action the engineer can take to ensure secure operations?

  • A. Conduct logging and monitoring of the system and apply need to know and least privileges.
  • B. Refer to the organization's SCADA security standards and policies.
  • C. Refer to the SCADA risk assessment and industry standards.
  • D. Review the organizational Standard Operating Procedures (SOP).

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 38
An effective approach to projecting requirements for materials with long lead times Includes which of the following options?

  • A. Use phantom bills of materials (BOMs).
  • B. Increase the level of safety stock.
  • C. Decrease the planning horizon.
  • D. Initiate a multilevel master schedule.

Answer: D

Explanation:
An effective approach to projecting requirements for materials with long lead times is to initiate a multilevel master schedule. A multilevel master schedule is a detailed plan that shows the quantities and timing of the end items and all of their components at each level of the bill of materials (BOM). By using a multilevel master schedule, a planner can determine the requirements for materials with long lead times and place orders in advance to avoid shortages or delays. A phantom bill of materials (BOM) is a temporary grouping of components that are used in the production of a parent item, but do not exist as a separate item in inventory. A phantom BOM is not an effective approach to projecting requirements for materials with long lead times, as it does not reflect the actual demand for the components. Increasing the level of safety stock is a way of mitigating the risk of uncertainty in demand or supply, but it is not an effective approach to projecting requirements for materials with long lead times, as it increases the inventory carrying costs and does not address the root cause of the problem. Decreasing the planning horizon is the opposite of an effective approach to projecting requirements for materials with long lead times, as it reduces the visibility and accuracy of the forecast and increases the likelihood of stockouts or excess inventory. References:
CPIM Part 2 Learning System, Module 1: Supply Chain Strategy, Section 1.4: Master Scheduling CPIM Part 2 Learning System, Module 3: Supply, Section 3.2: Material Requirements Planning


NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following tools is used to evaluate the impact that a production plan has on capacity?

  • A. Safety capacity
  • B. Product routing
  • C. Bill of resources
  • D. Demand time fence (DTF)

Answer: C

Explanation:
A bill of resources is a tool that lists the capacity requirements for each work center or resource group based on the planned production quantities. It is used to evaluate the impact that a production plan has on capacity by comparing the available capacity with the required capacity. A bill of resources can also help identify capacity bottlenecks, excess capacity, and alternative resources. A demand time fence(DTF) is a tool that defines the period of time in which the master production schedule (MPS) is frozen and cannot be changed by customer orders. A product routing is a tool that defines the sequence of operations and work centers required to produce a product. A safety capacity is a tool that provides a buffer against demand and supply uncertainty by adding extra capacity to the planned capacity. These tools are not directly used to evaluate the impact that a production plan has on capacity, although they may affect the capacity planning process. References: Bill of Resources | APICS Dictionary Term of the Day, APICS CPIM 8 Planning and Inventory Management | ASCM


NEW QUESTION # 40
A manufacturer has a primary assembly line supported by output from several subassembly lines. Which of the following scenarios would be the best argument for a multilevel master scheduling process?

  • A. Low variation in aggregate subassembly demand
  • B. High variation in aggregate subassembly demand
  • C. High variation in subassembly demand mix
  • D. Low variation in subassembly demand mix

Answer: C

Explanation:
A multilevel master scheduling process is a method of planning and managing the production of complex products that have multiple levels of components and subassemblies. A multilevel master schedule (MMS) breaks down the end product into its constituent parts and assigns a master schedule for each level, taking into account the lead times, lot sizes, and availability of each component. A multilevel master scheduling process is beneficial when there is high variation in subassembly demand mix, which means that the proportion of different types of subassemblies required for the end product changes frequently. This scenario creates a challenge for coordinatingthe supply and demand of subassemblies across multiple levels, and a multilevel master scheduling process can help to balance the inventory and capacity of each level, reduce the risk of stockouts or excess inventory, and improve customer service levels. References := CPIM Part 2 Exam Content Manual, Version 8.0, ASCM, 2021, p. 23. CPIM Part 2 Learning System, Version 8.0, Module 2, Section B,


NEW QUESTION # 41
A vendor has been awarded a contract to supply key business software. The vendor has declined all requests to have its security controls audited by customers. The organization insists the product must go live within 30 days. However, the security team is reluctant to allow the project to go live. What is the organization's BEST next step?

  • A. Gain assurance on the vendor's security controls by examining independent audit reports and any relevant certifications the vendor can provide.
  • B. Document a risk acceptance, in accordance with internal risk management procedures, that will allow the product to go-live.
  • C. Evaluate available open source threat intelligence pertaining to the vendor and their product.
  • D. Shift the negative impact of the risk to a cyber insurance provider, i.e., risk transference.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following situations is most likely to occur when using a push system?

  • A. Work centers signal previous work centers when they are ready for more work.
  • B. Work centers operate using decentralized control.
  • C. Work centers receive work even if capacity is not available.
  • D. Work centers are scheduled using finite capacity planning.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A push system is a production system that operates based on forecasts and schedules, rather than actual customer demand. A push system pushes products to the market regardless of the current demand, and often results in excess inventory and waste. A push system does not consider the capacity constraints of the work centers, and therefore may send work orders to them even if they are not able to process them. This can create bottlenecks, delays, and inefficiencies in the production process12.
The other options are not correct because:
* B. Work centers are scheduled using finite capacity planning. This is not a characteristic of a push system, but rather a pull system. Finite capacity planning is a method of scheduling that takes into account the actual capacity of the work centers, and only releases work orders when there is enough capacity to process them. This reduces the risk of overloading the work centers and improves the flow of production3.
* C. Work centers operate using decentralized control. This is not a characteristic of a push system, but rather a pull system. Decentralized control is a method of management that gives more autonomy and decision-making power to the work centers, and allows them to adjust their production according to the actual demand and capacity. This increases the flexibility and responsiveness of the production system4.
* D. Work centers signal previous work centers when they are ready for more work. This is not a characteristic of a push system, but rather a pull system. This is a common practice in a pull system that uses kanban cards as visual signals to trigger the production or replenishment of a product. The work centers only request more work when they have enough capacity and demand for it, and avoid overproduction and waste5.


NEW QUESTION # 43
An organization's security assessment recommended expanding its secure software development framework to include testing Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) products before deploying those products in production.
What is the MOST likely reason for this recommendation?

  • A. To identify and remediate any residual vulnerabilities prior to the end of the user acceptance testing
  • B. To identify and remediate any residual vulnerabilities prior to release in the production environment
  • C. To identify any residual vulnerabilities prior to the end of the trial run of the software
  • D. To identify any residual vulnerabilities prior to release in the production environment

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 44
The master schedule is an Important tool in the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process because it:

  • A. balances supply and demand at the sales volume level.
  • B. represents the forecast before changes are made in S&OP.
  • C. represents the forecast with less detail.
  • D. balances supply and demand at the product mix level.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The master schedule is an important tool in the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process because it balances supply and demand at the product mix level. The master schedule is a detailed plan that specifies the quantity and timing of each end item or product family to be produced. It is derived from the aggregate production plan, which is the output of the S&OP process. The master schedule helps to translate the aggregate plan into specific product requirements and to allocate the available capacity to meet the demand.
The master schedule also provides input to the material requirements planning (MRP) and capacity requirements planning (CRP) systems, which further refine the production plan at the component and resource levels. The other statements are not true about the master schedule. The master schedule does not represent the forecast before changes are made in S&OP, as the forecast is an input to the S&OP process, not an output.
The master schedule does not represent the forecast with less detail, as the master schedule is more detailed than the forecast, which is usually expressed in aggregate terms. The master schedule does not balance supply and demand at the sales volume level, as the sales volume level is the level of the aggregate production plan, not the master schedule. References: Master Schedule | APICS Dictionary Term of the Day, APICS CPIM 8 Planning and Inventory Management | ASCM


NEW QUESTION # 45
An infrastructure team is setting up a wireless network for employees at a new location of the organization that is located near a very busy city transport hub. Which should be the MOST important antenna consideration with regard to securing the wireless network for the infrastructure team?

  • A. Network efficiently allows maximum channel separation.
  • B. Network's Service Set Identifier (SSID) visibility and vulnerabilities are not cast out too far.
  • C. Parabolic antenna is used for signal convergence.
  • D. Implement Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following benefits typically will be realized when switching from a functional to a cellular layout?

  • A. Products will have faster throughput.
  • B. Capital expenditures will be reduced.
  • C. Equipment utilization will be higher.
  • D. Quality inspections will be reduced.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A cellular layout is a workplace organization in which processes are organized by the product or product family, rather than by the type of work (function). A cellular layout consists of cells, which are groups of machines or workstations that are located close to each other and perform all the operations required for a product or product family. A cellular layout has several advantages over a functional layout, such as reduced material handling, improved quality, increased flexibility, and enhanced employee involvement. One of the main benefits of a cellular layout is that products will have faster throughput. Throughput is the rate at which products are produced and delivered to the customers. A cellular layout can increase the throughput by reducing the travel distance, the waiting time, and the setup time for the products. A cellular layout can also improve the production flow, the synchronization, and the visibility of the products. The other options are not correct, as they are not the typical benefits of switching from a functional to a cellular layout, but rather possible drawbacks or trade-offs of switching from a functional to a cellular layout:
Equipment utilization will be higher: This is unlikely to be true, as a cellular layout may result in lower equipment utilization than a functional layout. Equipment utilization is the ratio of the actual output of a machine to its maximum possible output. A cellular layout may reduce the equipment utilization by dedicating some machines to specific products or product families, which may limit the sharing of machines across different products or product families. A cellular layout may also reduce the equipment utilization by balancing the workload among the machines within a cell, which may prevent some machines from operating at their full capacity.
Quality inspections will be reduced: This may or may not be true, depending on the quality level and the quality control system of the production process. A cellular layout may reduce the quality inspections by improving the quality of the products, as the workers in a cell are more responsible, skilled, and empowered to perform the operations and to detect and correct the defects. However, a cellular layout may also increase the quality inspections by requiring more frequent and rigorous checks of the products, as the products move from one cell to another or from one stage to another.
Capital expenditures will be reduced: This is unlikely to be true, as a cellular layout may result in higher capital expenditures than a functional layout. Capital expenditures are the costs of acquiring or upgrading the fixed assets, such as machines, equipment, or facilities. A cellular layout may increase the capital expenditures by requiring more machines or equipment to create the cells, especially if the machines or equipment are specialized or customized for specific products or product families. A cellular layout may also increase the capital expenditures by requiring more space or facilities to accommodate the cells, especially if the cells are dispersed or isolated from each other. References:
[CPIM Part 2 - Section B - Topic 4 - Sustainability]
Cellular Manufacturing: Definition, Examples & Advantages - Katana
Cellular or Functional Layout? - IGI Global
Functional Layout - Velaction
What is cell layout? - Studybuff.com


NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following items does the master scheduler have the authority to change in the master scheduling process?

  • A. Engineering change effectivity date
  • B. Customer order quantities
  • C. Product mix
  • D. Aggregate volume

Answer: C

Explanation:
The master scheduler has the authority to change the product mix in the master scheduling process. The product mix is the combination and proportion of different products or product families that the company offers to its customers. The master scheduler can adjust the product mix based on the customer demand, the production capacity, the inventory levels, and the strategic objectives of the company. The master scheduler can also use the product mix to balance the demand and supply, to optimize the resource utilization, and to maximize the profitability. The other options are not correct, as they are items that the master scheduler does not have the authority to change in the master scheduling process, but rather inputs or constraints that the master scheduler has to follow or consider:
* Aggregate volume is the total quantity of products or product families that the company plans to produce and deliver in a given period. Aggregate volume is determined by the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process, which involves the senior management and the functional managers of the company. The master scheduler has to align the master production schedule (MPS) with the aggregate volume, and cannot change it without the approval of the S&OP team.
* Engineering change effectivity date is the date when a change in the design or specification of a product or a component becomes effective. Engineering change effectivity date is determined by the engineering department, which is responsible for the product development and innovation. The master scheduler has to incorporate the engineering change effectivity date into the MPS, and cannot change it without the approval of the engineering department.
* Customer order quantities are the amounts of products or product families that the customers order from the company. Customer order quantities are determined by the market demand and the customer preferences. The master scheduler has to satisfy the customer order quantities as much as possible, and cannot change them without the approval of the customers or the sales and marketing department. References:
* [CPIM Part 2 - Section A - Topic 1 - Sales and Operations Planning]
* Master Production Schedule (MPS)
* Product Mix
* Aggregate Planning
* Engineering Change Management
* Customer Order Management


NEW QUESTION # 48
During an onsite audit, an assessor inspected an organization's asset decommission practice. Which of the following would MOST likely be a finding from a security point of view?

  • A. Data classifications were not clearly identified.
  • B. Hard drives from older assets replaced defective hard drives from current assets of similar classification levels.
  • C. Solid State Drives (SSD) were degaussed along with hard drives.
  • D. The Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) between the organization and its data disposal service was more than 3 years old.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 49
An organization currently has a network with 55,000 unique Internet Protocol (IP) addresses in their private Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) network range and has acquired another organization and must integrate their 25,000 endpoints with the existing, flat network topology.
If subnetting is not implemented, which network class is implied for the organization's resulting private network segment?

  • A. A
  • B. B
  • C. C
  • D. E

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 50
When developing information security policies, What is the PRIMARY concern?

  • A. Alignment with regulatory requirements
  • B. Compliance with international standards
  • C. Compliance with legal requirements
  • D. Alignment with business requirements

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 51
In a Discretionary Access Control (DAC) model, how is access to resources managed?

  • A. By the identity of subjects and/or groups to which they belong
  • B. By the subject's ability to perform the function
  • C. By the subject's rank and/or title within the security organization
  • D. By the discretion of a system administrator

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing an Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution?

  • A. Engage the sponsor and identify key stakeholders.
  • B. Evaluate the existing Information Technology (IT) environment.
  • C. Evaluate business needs.
  • D. List and evaluate IAM available products.

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 53
A health care organization's new cloud-based customer-facing application is constantly receiving security events from dubious sources. What BEST describes a security event that compromises the confidentiality, integrity or availability of the application and data?

  • A. Breach
  • B. Failure
  • C. Attack
  • D. Incident

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 54
A low-cost provider strategy works best when which of the following conditions are met?

  • A. There are few industry newcomers.
  • B. Price competition among rivals is similar.
  • C. Buyers are more price sensitive.
  • D. There are many ways to achieve product differentiation.

Answer: C

Explanation:
A low-cost provider strategy is a business strategy where a company aims to become the most cost-efficient player in its industry, often by producing goods or providing services at a lower cost than its competitors. The overall goal is to increase market share or achieve higher profitability. The low-cost leader in an industry often sets the price that other companies have to match or beat to stay competitive12.
A low-cost provider strategy works best when buyers are more price sensitive, meaning they are more likely to switch to cheaper alternatives if the price of a product or service increases. This condition creates a strong demand for low-priced products or services, and gives the low-cost leader a competitive advantage over rivals who have higher costs and prices. Buyers are more price sensitive when34:
* The product or service is standardized or undifferentiated, and there are few switching costs.
* The product or service represents a significant portion of the buyer's budget or income.
* The product or service has low quality, performance, or image attributes that limit the buyer's satisfaction or loyalty.
* The product or service is not crucial to the buyer's well-being or enjoyment.
The other options are not correct because:
* A. Price competition among rivals is similar. This condition does not favor a low-cost provider strategy, because it implies that the industry is already highly competitive and there is little room for differentiation. A low-cost leader would have to lower its prices even further to gain an edge over rivals, which could erode its profitability and sustainability.
* C. There are many ways to achieve product differentiation. This condition does not favor a low-cost provider strategy, because it implies that the industry is diverse and dynamic, and there are many opportunities for innovation and value creation. A low-cost leader would have to invest more in research and development, marketing, and customer service to keep up with the changing customer preferences and expectations, which could increase its costs and reduce its efficiency.
* D. There are few industry newcomers. This condition does not favor a low-cost provider strategy, because it implies that the industry is mature and stable, and there are few threats from new entrants. A low-cost leader would have to rely on its existing customer base and market share, which could limit its growth potential and expose it to the risk of obsolescence.


NEW QUESTION # 55
What does the Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) method define?

  • A. What actions the user can or cannot do
  • B. How information is accessed within a system
  • C. What equipment is needed to perform
  • D. How to apply the security labels in a system

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 56
A logistics manager Is faced with delivering an order via rail or truck. Shipping via rail costs S300 and takes 14 days. Shipping via truck costs $600 and takes 3 days. If the holding cost is $40 per day, what is the cost to deliver the order?

  • A. $860for rail,$720 for truck
  • B. $340for rail,$600 for truck
  • C. $860for rail.$600 for truck
  • D. $340for rail.$720 for truck

Answer: A

Explanation:
The cost to deliver the order consists of two components: the shipping cost and the holding cost. The shipping cost is the amount paid to the transportation mode for moving the order from the origin to the destination. The holding cost is the amount incurred for storing the order until it is delivered to the customer. The holding cost depends on the delivery time, which is the number of days it takes for the order to reach the customer. The longer the delivery time, the higher the holding cost. The shipping cost and the holding cost for each transportation mode are calculated as follows:
Shipping via rail:
Shipping cost = $300
Delivery time = 14 days
Holding cost = $40 x 14 = $560
Total cost = $300 + $560 = $860
Shipping via truck:
Shipping cost = $600
Delivery time = 3 days
Holding cost = $40 x 3 = $120
Total cost = $600 + $120 = $720
Therefore, the cost to deliver the order via rail is $860, and the cost to deliver the order via truck is $720. Reference: Transportation Costing | APICS Dictionary Term of the Day, APICS CPIM 8 Planning and Inventory Management | ASCM


NEW QUESTION # 57
The costs provided in the table below are associated with buying a quantity larger than immediately needed. What Is the total landed cost based on this table?
Cost CategoryCost
Custom fees$125
Freight$700
Warehouse rent$200
Matenal cost$500

  • A. $825
  • B. $1,325
  • C. $1,400
  • D. $1,525

Answer: D

Explanation:
The total landed cost is the sum of all the costs associated with buying a quantity larger than immediately needed, including the cost of the product, the custom fees, the freight, and the warehouse rent. Based on the table, the total landed cost can be calculated as follows:
Landed cost = material cost + custom fees + freight + warehouse rent Landed cost = $500 + $125 + $700 + $200 Landed cost = $1,525 Therefore, the correct answer is D. $1,525. The other options are not correct, as they either omit some of the costs or use incorrect values. The total landed cost reflects the direct costs only to move the product from the factory floor to the customer. It is an important supply chain KPI in inventory management, as it helps to determine the optimal order quantity, pricing, and profitability of the products12. Reference:
What is Landed Cost? | Calculation and Tips to Improve - ORBA Cloud CFO What is Landed Cost & Why is it Important | Finale Inventory


NEW QUESTION # 58
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